Question 3.6. is as following: "Option writers (market makers who take short positions) are averse to high delta call options but prefer low delta call options?"
You wrote: "Because supply is lower for OTM call options (delta nearer to zero!) and supply is higher for ITM call options (delta nearer to 1.0), ..."
I thought it is the opposite. If writers are averse to high delta call options, the supply to high delta call options must be lower. Since high delta call options are ITM call options, the price for ITM call options must be higher, implying a higher volatility where strike is low.
Would you please comment? Thx.
You wrote: "Because supply is lower for OTM call options (delta nearer to zero!) and supply is higher for ITM call options (delta nearer to 1.0), ..."
I thought it is the opposite. If writers are averse to high delta call options, the supply to high delta call options must be lower. Since high delta call options are ITM call options, the price for ITM call options must be higher, implying a higher volatility where strike is low.
Would you please comment? Thx.