Hello David,
Can you please explain why the Implied volatility of calls is different from puts in real markets. As per Hull, the IV of call and puts have to be same. But when I look into actual markets, the data is otherwise. I tried to google around, but could not find a convincing answer.
Appreciate your help on this.
Many Thanks,
Raghavan.
Can you please explain why the Implied volatility of calls is different from puts in real markets. As per Hull, the IV of call and puts have to be same. But when I look into actual markets, the data is otherwise. I tried to google around, but could not find a convincing answer.
Appreciate your help on this.
Many Thanks,
Raghavan.