afterworkguinness
Active Member
Hello,
In the example provided from Jorian in the notes on VaR mapping, the present value of the cash flow from being long the Euro spot = 125 MM = (-)(-130.09 MM USD)(0.968 USD Bill Discount Factor).
Can someone explain how this is the cash flow on the Euro spot ?
Thanks
In the example provided from Jorian in the notes on VaR mapping, the present value of the cash flow from being long the Euro spot = 125 MM = (-)(-130.09 MM USD)(0.968 USD Bill Discount Factor).
Can someone explain how this is the cash flow on the Euro spot ?
Thanks
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