I am also certified now. I posted my experience on the same day the results came out. Congrtulations to certified FRMs and again many thanks to Bionic Turtle!!!
The answer is zero colleteral transfer. The uncollateralized exposure rose from 9k to 12k, but the threshold is 10k. So 12k-10k=2k. However, there is the requirement of min. transfer of 2500. 2000-2500=-500. More than 500 is needed to enforrce the collateral call. The answer is zero.
There were some theortical qestions related to RAF, Capital planning and Op. risk framework And how did you takcle the question related to fat fingers: stop loss functionality or limit orders?
Understood, so I devided by 2 and 1 to check but neither showed the desired difference between the 2 approaches, so logicaly opted for higher amount and 37.
One of the questions that puzzled me was to find lowest MVar while having treynor ration greater than 1. Did't spend much time on this qestion in order not to sacrifice the rest.
One of the business lines had only one positive income so should it be 1 in the denominator when calculating BIA? I also chose 37 million, but only logicaly as i could't get the answer.
As for long correlation , Meissner in his 1st assigned reading mentions several strategies including options, variance swap and correlation swap. I chose correlation swap, but might be wrong as the question used a stock position vs index or something like that as now i don't remember the...
Another basel related issue was with the amount requied fundin in the denominator and wether the ratio is met. I chose 55.4 and the ratio was greater that 100%
The question with shifting from STA to BI approach with two business line was confusing as one business line had only one year of positive net income over 3 years, but I couldn't find the right answer, so I chose increase from STA to BIA logically but may be wrong ragarding the right amount.
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