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Hi @David Harper CFA FRM CIPM , reviewing the single-variable-regression-based hedge (DV01 hedge) the following example is given, but unfortunately I do not get the concept. Example: the trader is short a 100 MIO US Bond 3 5/8s and long some amount of TIPS 1 7/8s . Now the question is what...

Hi @BongoBolognese , you do not have to renew your membership, you won't get certain access to individual papers etc. but your exam results for part I will stay valid. As far as I know. You have 4 years to complete the second part, otherwise you will have to retake the first part.

Hi @David Harper CFA FRM CIPM , @Nicole Manley I browsed the materials for the part II level and found, that some materials are not coverd on your study planner. Could you tell me if I am searching them on the wrong site or are there still not explicite pdfs for the following core readings: 1...

I also want to say thank you to @mary_ful not only for posting the huge list of concepts but also for being so supportive ! thank you

I did not pass either, 2,2,2,3,4 was not enougth - @mary_ful may you would squeeze those to me too? @mondclchou - you are not alone, the next time we will do better!

Hi mailtoansh, I think you will realize that those concepts which are needed for part 2 are shortly referred to in the curriculum of part 2. I would advice you to review those ones, when you come accross them. In my point of view that should be enough to rememorize the asked concepts of part 1...

Hi arkabose, I have done the topics one after another as listed in GARP's reading list. After going through the first time, I started with the practice questions. I also did them chapter by chapter. After that I went trough those topics with which I had trobbels. I did not use the study...

Hi! I have also worte into the entire booklet on the Part I exam and passed. So don't worry!

thank you @Nicole Manley plz let it accure

Hi @ShaktiRathore , I think now I understand. In basic we get for the variance of a(T) Var(a(T))=beta^2*Var(m)+(1-beta^2)*Var(e) with Var(m) & Var(e) = 1 as both are normally distributed with Mü = 0 and sigma = 1. therefore: Var(a(T))=beta^2+(1-beta^2) knowing total risk = 1 leads to the...

Hi @ShaktiRathore, @David Harper CFA FRM CIPM , thanks for your explanation but unfortunately I don't even get to your first formula. The question states "If a firm's systemic risk contributes 70% to its total risk" I would interpret a_T as the modelled firm's return. So therefore I would...

Dear @David Harper CFA FRM CIPM , regarding to 304.1 I have a question: starting with a(T) = beta*m + SQRT(1-beta^2)*epsilon -> leads to systemetic risk is adressed by beta. Therefore beta = 0.7 and SQRT(1-beta^2) = 0.3 . Making retransformation leads to: (1-beta^2) = 0.3^2 sqrt...

Hi @tosuhn, I found all the other readings by copying the titles into the google search engine

HI rainer.lux , do you have already taken a a closer look on the study-provider from garps' website? http://www.garp.org/erp/study-center/exam-preparation-providers/the-oxford-princeton-programme.aspx thx

I tried to summarize the reading - Maybe it is helpful for others - feel free to extend/correct/.. 25% - 50% of trade volume done by HFT (high frequency trading) [trading systrems ^= computers] vs. low-frequency trading [humans] machines think in cycles (amount of volume) vs humans think in...

Anybody out there who is interested in forming a study group in vienna(austria) for part II ? :)

Passed Part 1. Thank you for your patience and detailed explanations

Hi David, as so far no items are shown in the study section for the Current Issues Readings i searched the readings by myself on the internet. I found nearly every paper GARP refers to. But unfortunately I was not able to find the paper of O'Hara High Frequency Trading and Its Impact on Markets...

maybe you guys are as nervous as i am and you also could need a laugh [I promise I won't post such off-topic posts again - but for this time I think it's kind of funny in reference of the guy who has seen his 'passing' status for a few seconds *gg* ]